So I was on another Forum (Pelican Parts) and one of the posters was trying to sell a BMW motorcycle to buy another one and asked for advise on the merits of selling vs trading in. The seller was from California and was offered $6,500 bucks for his bike with all the bling taken off or $7,500 with all the extra stuff by the dealer on trade for a new BMW motorcycle. The original poster said that if he were to sell the bike privately he would ask 9k for it but, ultimately, decided to trade the bike in.
I chimed in saying that I would rather sell the bike to another member of the forum rather than trading it in to the dealer. My hypothetical scenario was that a person contacted the original poster and offered him the same money that the dealer was offering (I guess in California you don't get any sales tax break on a trade in). All things being equal the seller gets the same amount of money, the buyer gets a good deal on the bike, and the dealership does not get to mark up the trade. Is this unreasonable? I got hit pretty hard on the forum with a couple of guys saying it's the seller prerogative to do whatever he chooses (I totally agree with that but I'd rather be nice to another enthusiast than give the dealership several thousand dollars)
If I wanted to trade in my NSX and was offered 20k for it and really needed to get rid of it I would rather let a fellow Primer make out than the dealership making 5-10 grand on the deal. In New York you get a sales tax benefit so I'd need to get 21.6K for the car to get the same money (just a hypothetical here...my car is not for sale). I'm just wondering if I'm way off base.
I chimed in saying that I would rather sell the bike to another member of the forum rather than trading it in to the dealer. My hypothetical scenario was that a person contacted the original poster and offered him the same money that the dealer was offering (I guess in California you don't get any sales tax break on a trade in). All things being equal the seller gets the same amount of money, the buyer gets a good deal on the bike, and the dealership does not get to mark up the trade. Is this unreasonable? I got hit pretty hard on the forum with a couple of guys saying it's the seller prerogative to do whatever he chooses (I totally agree with that but I'd rather be nice to another enthusiast than give the dealership several thousand dollars)
If I wanted to trade in my NSX and was offered 20k for it and really needed to get rid of it I would rather let a fellow Primer make out than the dealership making 5-10 grand on the deal. In New York you get a sales tax benefit so I'd need to get 21.6K for the car to get the same money (just a hypothetical here...my car is not for sale). I'm just wondering if I'm way off base.