Hey all, I'm seeking serious inputs here.
I have a '92 NSX, in white, that WAS a genuine "virgin" all-original, TOTALLY unmolested car with only 73,550 all original miles, ALL complete service records fully intact, and with ALL maintenance up-to-date...but she suffered a fender scuff at the hands of a psycho road-rage woman while sitting in bumper-to-bumper traffic yesterday (see attached pics).
This woman DELIBERATELY side-swiped me in a desperate, but lame & misguided attempt to cut in front of me by zipping around me. She either misjudged her clearance, or hit me on purpose in her fit of rage. >:-(
The damage is pretty minor, and her insurance is going to pay for everything BUT, my question is in addressing the value of diminished value. I need to hit her insurance company up for that loss as well as the cost of repair.
My line of thinking is: the car, prior to the incident would obviously sell for a set market amount with some portion of that price being attributed to the fact that this WAS a genuine NEVER WRECKED car. NOW, the car is worth some amount less that what it could previously command. True, it will be totally brought back up to snuff, but now it can no longer can carry the "never wrecked, 100% original" designation. THAT fact WILL devalue the car to SOME degree...but how much?
I am seeking opinions, calculations, expert advice, etc...of what the diminished value amount would be. Since I am no longer entitled to receive that "little extra premium" at some point of sale, then the insurance company is liable to compensate me for that amount now. "NO", the car is not for sale, nor will it be anytime sooner (if ever)...but I am not taking some loss here.
Thoughts?
What premium would ya'll place on a never wrecked car OVER one that has had even a fender replaced...no matter how well the job is done?
Thanks for any help ya'll can provide...
PS: for what it's worth, the woman was 45-55 years old and driving a black 2012 Lexus ES350.
.
I have a '92 NSX, in white, that WAS a genuine "virgin" all-original, TOTALLY unmolested car with only 73,550 all original miles, ALL complete service records fully intact, and with ALL maintenance up-to-date...but she suffered a fender scuff at the hands of a psycho road-rage woman while sitting in bumper-to-bumper traffic yesterday (see attached pics).
This woman DELIBERATELY side-swiped me in a desperate, but lame & misguided attempt to cut in front of me by zipping around me. She either misjudged her clearance, or hit me on purpose in her fit of rage. >:-(
The damage is pretty minor, and her insurance is going to pay for everything BUT, my question is in addressing the value of diminished value. I need to hit her insurance company up for that loss as well as the cost of repair.
My line of thinking is: the car, prior to the incident would obviously sell for a set market amount with some portion of that price being attributed to the fact that this WAS a genuine NEVER WRECKED car. NOW, the car is worth some amount less that what it could previously command. True, it will be totally brought back up to snuff, but now it can no longer can carry the "never wrecked, 100% original" designation. THAT fact WILL devalue the car to SOME degree...but how much?
I am seeking opinions, calculations, expert advice, etc...of what the diminished value amount would be. Since I am no longer entitled to receive that "little extra premium" at some point of sale, then the insurance company is liable to compensate me for that amount now. "NO", the car is not for sale, nor will it be anytime sooner (if ever)...but I am not taking some loss here.
Thoughts?
What premium would ya'll place on a never wrecked car OVER one that has had even a fender replaced...no matter how well the job is done?
Thanks for any help ya'll can provide...
PS: for what it's worth, the woman was 45-55 years old and driving a black 2012 Lexus ES350.
.
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